Live Education Quiz

1

Which of the following is a physical quantity?

A Honesty B Length C Beauty D Kindness

2

Which of the following is a non-physical quantity?

A Mass B Time C Temperature D Love

3

Physics mainly deals with the study of:

A Living things B Matter and energy C Society D Language

4

Which of the following is a base quantity?

A Speed B Force C Mass D Density

5

How many base quantities are there in SI system?

A 5 B 6 C 7 D 8

6

Which is the SI unit of length?

A Centimeter B Meter C Kilometer D Millimeter

7

SI unit of mass is:

A Gram B Milligram C Kilogram D Ton

8

SI unit of time is:

A Hour B Minute C Second D Day

9

Which of the following is a derived quantity?

A Length B Mass C Time D Speed

10

SI unit of speed is:

A m/s B m C s D kg/m

11

Which quantity has both magnitude and direction?

A Speed B Distance C Velocity D Mass

12

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A Force B Velocity C Displacement D Distance

13

Distance is a:

A Vector quantity B Scalar quantity C Derived vector D Base vector

14

Displacement is a:

A Scalar quantity B Non-physical quantity C Vector quantity D Derived scalar

15

Which quantity changes when direction changes?

A Speed B Mass C Time D Velocity

16

Resultant of two vectors at right angles is found using:

A Addition law B Subtraction law C Pythagoras theorem D Newton’s law

17

Which instrument is used to measure length accurately?

A Measuring tape B Meter rule C Vernier caliper D Stopwatch

18

Screw gauge is mainly used to measure:

A Time B Volume C Small lengths D Mass

19

Least count means:

A Maximum value of instrument B Minimum value measurable C Average value D Error value

20

Volume of a liquid is measured using:

A Beaker B Measuring cylinder C Balance D Stopwatch

21

SI unit of volume is:

A Liter B cm³ C m³ D ml

22

Which instrument is used to measure time?

A Clock B Balance C Thermometer D Ruler

23

Stopwatch is used to measure:

A Mass B Time interval C Length D Volume

24

Scientific notation is used to express:

A Very small and very large numbers B Only small numbers C Only large numbers D Whole numbers

25

Which of the following is correct scientific notation?

A 0.00045 B 4500 C 4.5 × 10³ D 45 × 10²

26

Prefix kilo (k) represents:

A 10² B 10³ C 10⁻³ D 10⁶

27

Prefix milli (m) represents:

A 10⁻¹ B 10⁻² C 10⁻³ D 10³

28

Prefix micro (µ) means:

A 10⁻⁶ B 10⁻³ C 10⁶ D 10³

29

Which prefix represents 10⁶?

A Milli B Micro C Mega D Nano

30

Accuracy refers to:

A Repeated measurements B Closeness to true value C Instrument quality D Least count

31

Precision refers to:

A Closeness to true value B Repeated consistency C Instrument size D Unit used

32

Which causes error in measurement?

A Instrument fault B Human mistake C Environmental effects D All of these

33

Zero error occurs when:

A Scale is broken B Instrument reads zero incorrectly C Observer is careless D Value is large

34

Random errors can be reduced by:

A Single reading B Changing instrument C Taking average of readings D Ignoring readings

35

Which quantity is vector?

A Speed B Time C Force D Mass

36

Unit of force is:

A Joule B Newton C Watt D Pascal

37

Force is a:

A Scalar B Vector C Non-physical D Derived scalar

38

Which is NOT an SI base unit?

A Meter B Second C Kilogram D Liter

39

Measurement is comparison with:

A Standard unit B Random value C Guess D Estimation only

40

Which quantity is measured in m²?

A Volume B Area C Length D Density

41

Which of the following best defines motion?

A Change in shape of an object B Change in position with respect to time C Change in speed only D Change in size of an object

42

Which type of motion is shown by a spinning top?

A Linear motion B Circular motion C Random motion D Oscillatory motion

43

Which quantity has both magnitude and direction?

A Distance B Speed C Displacement D Time

44

Distance is defined as:

A Shortest path between two points B Total length of path traveled C Change in position with direction D Speed multiplied by time

45

Displacement can be zero even when:

A Distance is zero B Time is zero C Distance is not zero D Speed is constant

46

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A Velocity B Acceleration C Displacement D Speed

47

Speed is calculated by the formula:

A Distance ÷ Time B Displacement ÷ Time C Acceleration × Time D Velocity ÷ Time

48

Velocity differs from speed because velocity includes:

A Time B Distance C Direction D Mass

49

Average speed is defined as:

A Final speed minus initial speed B Total distance divided by total time C Displacement divided by time D Instantaneous speed at a point

50

Which instrument is commonly used to measure speed of vehicles?

A Thermometer B Speedometer C Barometer D Ammeter

51

Instantaneous speed is the speed:

A At the start of motion B At the end of motion C At a particular instant D Averaged over time

52

Uniform velocity means:

A Speed changes with time B Direction changes with time C Equal displacement in equal intervals of time D Unequal displacement in equal intervals

53

Non-uniform velocity occurs when:

A Speed and direction both remain constant B Speed or direction changes C Distance is zero D Acceleration is zero

54

Acceleration is defined as:

A Change in speed B Change in velocity per unit time C Speed multiplied by time D Distance divided by time

55

SI unit of acceleration is:

A m/s B m/s² C km/h D N/kg

56

Uniform acceleration means:

A Acceleration changes with time B Velocity remains constant C Equal change in velocity in equal time intervals D Speed remains zero

57

Which of the following is an example of uniform acceleration?

A Car moving in traffic B Falling object under gravity C Fan rotating D Train stopping suddenly

58

In a distance-time graph, the slope represents:

A Acceleration B Speed C Distance D Time

59

A horizontal line on a distance-time graph shows:

A Uniform speed B Increasing speed C Object at rest D Uniform acceleration

60

In a speed-time graph, the slope represents:

A Speed B Distance C Acceleration D Time

61

Area under a speed-time graph represents:

A Acceleration B Velocity C Distance traveled D Time taken

62

If speed-time graph is a straight line sloping upwards, motion has:

A Zero acceleration B Uniform acceleration C Non-uniform acceleration D Uniform velocity

63

If the slope of speed-time graph is zero, the object has:

A Uniform acceleration B Increasing speed C Uniform speed D Zero distance

64

Motion under gravity is an example of:

A Uniform velocity B Uniform acceleration C Non-uniform acceleration D Circular motion

65

The value of acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately:

A 9.8 m/s B 9.8 m/s² C 8.9 m/s² D 10 m/s

66

Acceleration due to gravity acts:

A Upward B Horizontally C Downward toward Earth’s center D Randomly

67

When an object is thrown upward, its acceleration is:

A Zero B Increasing C Decreasing D Equal to g downward

68

At the highest point of a vertically thrown object, its velocity is:

A Maximum B Minimum C Zero D Equal to g

69

Which graph represents uniform velocity?

A Straight line distance-time graph B Curved distance-time graph C Sloping speed-time graph D Curved speed-time graph

70

Negative acceleration is also called:

A Uniform acceleration B Retardation C Instantaneous speed D Velocity

71

Which quantity determines the direction of motion?

A Speed B Distance C Velocity D Time

72

If an object covers equal distances in unequal intervals of time, its motion is:

A Uniform B Non-uniform C Circular D Periodic

73

Universal speed limit refers to:

A Speed of sound B Escape velocity C Speed of light D Orbital speed

74

The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:

A 3 × 10^6 m/s B 3 × 10^7 m/s C 3 × 10^8 m/s D 3 × 10^9 m/s

75

Mass of a body is defined as:

A Force acting on the body B Quantity of matter in the body C Weight of the body D Volume of the body

76

The SI unit of mass is:

A Newton B Gram C Kilogram D Pound

77

Mass of a body remains:

A Same everywhere B Different on Moon C Zero in space D Dependent on gravity

78

Inertia is the property of a body due to which it:

A Moves faster B Changes shape C Resists change in its state D Stops moving

79

Greater mass means:

A Less inertia B More inertia C No inertia D Zero inertia

80

Which object has greater inertia?

A Cricket ball B Football C Truck D Tennis ball

81

Weight of a body is the force due to:

A Air B Magnetism C Gravity D Electric field

82

SI unit of weight is:

A Kilogram B Newton C Joule D Watt

83

Weight of a body depends upon:

A Mass only B Gravity only C Mass and gravity D Volume

84

Weight of a body on the Moon is:

A Same as Earth B Zero C More than Earth D Less than Earth

85

Gravitational field strength is defined as:

A Force per unit mass B Mass per unit force C Energy per unit mass D Weight per unit volume

86

Symbol used for gravitational field strength is:

A g B — C W D m

87

Value of gravitational field strength on Earth is approximately:

A 1 N/kg B 4.9 N/kg C 9.8 N/kg D 98 N/kg

88

Which instrument is used to measure mass?

A Spring balance B Force meter C Electronic balance D Thermometer

89

Which instrument is used to measure weight?

A Electronic balance B Beam balance C Spring balance D Stopwatch

90

Spring balance measures:

A Mass B Volume C Force D Density

91

Force that acts only when bodies are in contact is called:

A Gravitational force B Magnetic force C Contact force D Electric force

92

Which of the following is a contact force?

A Gravitational force B Friction C Magnetic force D Electric force

93

Force that acts without physical contact is called:

A Contact force B Applied force C Non-contact force D Frictional force

94

Which is a non-contact force?

A Friction B Tension C Gravitational force D Normal reaction

95

How many fundamental forces are there in nature?

A Two B Three C Four D Five

96

Which is NOT a fundamental force?

A Gravitational B Electromagnetic C Strong nuclear D Frictional

97

Free body diagram represents:

A Motion of body B All forces acting on a body C Shape of body D Velocity of body

98

In free body diagram, forces are shown by:

A Lines B Dots C Arrows D Circles

99

Newton’s First Law of Motion is also called:

A Law of acceleration B Law of inertia C Law of action-reaction D Law of gravitation

100

According to Newton’s First Law, a body remains at rest if:

A Net force is zero B Force is applied C Mass is large D Velocity is high

101

Newton’s First Law applies to bodies in:

A Only rest B Only motion C Rest or uniform motion D Accelerated motion only

102

Net force zero means body has:

A Increasing speed B Decreasing speed C Constant velocity D Changing direction

103

Effect of force on velocity can be:

A Change in speed B Change in direction C Change in both D No change

104

A force can change the direction of velocity as in:

A Straight line motion B Circular motion C Rest position D Equilibrium

105

When brakes are applied, passengers move forward due to:

A Gravity B Friction C Inertia D Weight

106

Seat belts are used in cars to overcome effects of:

A Weight B Mass C Inertia D Momentum

107

If net force on a body is not zero, body will:

A Remain at rest B Move with constant velocity C Accelerate D Stop moving

108

Unit of gravitational field strength N/kg is equivalent to:

A m/s B m/s² C kg/m D N/m

109

Mass measured by electronic balance depends on:

A Gravity B Spring constant C Comparison with standard mass D Temperature

110

Which force is responsible for weight?

A Magnetic force B Electric force C Gravitational force D Nuclear force

111

Inertia depends upon:

A Volume B Mass C Velocity D Weight

112

Which has more inertia?

A Empty cart B Loaded cart C Football D Tennis ball

113

Force is a vector quantity because it has:

A Magnitude only B Direction only C Magnitude and direction D No unit

114

Which force keeps planets in their orbits?

A Frictional force B Magnetic force C Gravitational force D Nuclear force

115

The tendency of a body to oppose change in motion is called:

A Momentum B Force C Inertia D Velocity

116

What is meant by the resultant force?

A Force that stops motion B Single force having same effect as multiple forces C Force due to gravity only D Force applied by an object

117

If all forces acting on a body cancel each other, the resultant force is:

A Maximum B Minimum C Zero D Infinite

118

Newton’s Second Law of Motion relates force with:

A Velocity B Momentum C Acceleration D Distance

119

The mathematical form of Newton’s Second Law is:

A F = mv B F = ma C F = m/a D F = a/m

120

Unit of force in SI system is:

A Dyne B Joule C Newton D Watt

121

If mass of a body is doubled and force remains same, acceleration will:

A Double B Become half C Remain same D Become zero

122

Newton’s Third Law of Motion states that:

A Force equals mass times acceleration B Every action has an equal and opposite reaction C Body remains at rest or in motion D Momentum is conserved

123

Action and reaction forces act on:

A Same body B Different bodies C Same direction D Same surface

124

Which of the following is an example of action-reaction pair?

A Weight and mass B Push on wall and wall pushing back C Friction and gravity D Speed and velocity

125

Why does a gun recoil when a bullet is fired?

A Due to gravity B Due to friction C Due to Newton’s Third Law D Due to inertia

126

Which law explains motion of rockets?

A First law B Second law C Third law D Law of gravitation

127

Momentum of a body depends on:

A Mass only B Velocity only C Mass and velocity D Force and mass

128

Formula of momentum is:

A p = mv B p = ma C p = m/v D p = v/m

129

SI unit of momentum is:

A kg m s⁻¹ B kg m s⁻² C N s⁻¹ D J s

130

Impulse is equal to:

A Force × distance B Force × time C Mass × acceleration D Momentum ÷ time

131

Impulse is equal to change in:

A Force B Velocity C Momentum D Mass

132

Unit of impulse is:

A Newton B Newton second C Joule D Watt

133

Which of the following increases impulse?

A Decreasing time B Increasing time C Decreasing force D Decreasing momentum

134

Why are airbags used in cars?

A To increase speed B To decrease force by increasing time C To reduce mass D To stop motion instantly

135

Principle of conservation of momentum states that:

A Momentum always increases B Momentum is lost in collisions C Total momentum remains constant D Momentum depends on force

136

What happens to the shape of a body when a force is applied?

A It always breaks B It may change C It becomes heavier D It stops moving

137

What is deformation?

A Change in mass B Change in volume only C Change in shape or size D Change in temperature

138

Which force can change the size of a body?

A Balanced force B Applied force C Gravitational force only D Magnetic force only

139

Elasticity is the property of a material to:

A Break easily B Change color C Regain original shape D Increase mass

140

Which material shows elasticity?

A Clay B Rubber band C Wet mud D Butter

141

Hooke’s Law is valid up to:

A Breaking point B Elastic limit C Melting point D Yield point

142

According to Hooke’s Law, force is proportional to:

A Mass B Pressure C Extension D Area

143

What is the spring constant?

A Force per unit mass B Extension per unit force C Force per unit extension D Area per unit force

144

The unit of spring constant is:

A Newton B Newton per meter C Meter D Pascal

145

A stiffer spring has:

A Smaller spring constant B Zero spring constant C Larger spring constant D Negative spring constant

146

In a load-extension graph, the straight line shows:

A Breaking point B Elastic behavior C Plastic behavior D Failure point

147

The limit of proportionality is the point where:

A Graph becomes horizontal B Extension stops C Force is zero D Graph stops being straight

148

Beyond elastic limit, a material:

A Returns to original shape B Shows permanent deformation C Becomes rigid D Stops stretching

149

What is pressure?

A Force × area B Force / area C Area / force D Mass × force

150

The SI unit of pressure is:

A Newton B Joule C Pascal D Watt

151

Pressure increases when:

A Force decreases B Area increases C Area decreases D Mass decreases

152

Why do sharp knives cut better?

A They have more mass B They reduce force C They increase pressure D They reduce friction

153

Atmospheric pressure is due to:

A Weight of water B Weight of air C Earth’s rotation D Sun’s heat

154

Atmospheric pressure decreases with:

A Depth B Temperature C Height D Humidity

155

Why is atmospheric pressure lower on mountains?

A More air B Less air above C More gravity D Higher temperature

156

Which instrument measures atmospheric pressure?

A Manometer B Thermometer C Barometer D Hygrometer

157

The working liquid in a mercury barometer is:

A Water B Oil C Mercury D Alcohol

158

Standard atmospheric pressure is equal to:

A 76 cm of mercury B 10 cm of mercury C 1 cm of mercury D 760 cm of mercury

159

A manometer is used to measure:

A Atmospheric pressure only B Liquid pressure only C Gas pressure D Temperature

160

Liquid pressure depends on:

A Shape of container B Depth of liquid C Color of liquid D Area of container

161

Liquid pressure increases with:

A Height B Density C Depth D All of these

162

Which liquid produces more pressure at same depth?

A Water B Oil C Mercury D Alcohol

163

Pascal’s Law states that pressure applied to a confined liquid:

A Acts upward only B Acts downward only C Is transmitted equally D Is reduced

164

Hydraulic machines work on:

A Hooke’s Law B Pascal’s Law C Archimedes’ Principle D Newton’s Law

165

Which is an application of Pascal’s Law?

A Barometer B Hydraulic lift C Thermometer D Speedometer

166

Why do camels have wide feet?

A To run fast B To increase pressure C To decrease pressure D To reduce weight

167

Pressure at the bottom of a lake is:

A Zero B Less than surface C More than surface D Equal to surface

168

Which factor does not affect liquid pressure?

A Depth B Density C Shape of container D Gravity

169

What happens to pressure if force doubles and area halves?

A No change B Doubles C Triples D Becomes four times

170

What is meant by work done in physics?

A Force applied without movement B Movement without force C Force causing displacement D Energy stored in an object

171

Which formula represents work done?

A Work = Force / Distance B Work = Force × Distance C Work = Mass × Acceleration D Work = Power × Time

172

If force is applied but no displacement occurs, the work done is:

A Maximum B Minimum C Zero D Negative

173

The SI unit of work is:

A Watt B Newton C Joule D Pascal

174

Energy is defined as:

A Force applied on an object B Ability to do work C Speed of an object D Mass of an object

175

Which of the following is a form of energy?

A Force B Mass C Heat D Distance

176

Energy possessed by a moving object is called:

A Potential energy B Chemical energy C Kinetic energy D Heat energy

177

Kinetic energy depends on:

A Mass only B Velocity only C Mass and velocity D Height only

178

Which object has maximum kinetic energy?

A A stationary car B A slowly moving bicycle C A fast-moving truck D A parked bus

179

Energy stored due to height is called:

A Kinetic energy B Thermal energy C Gravitational potential energy D Electrical energy

180

Gravitational potential energy depends on:

A Speed B Height C Time D Temperature

181

Which unit is used for energy?

A Newton B Watt C Joule D Volt

182

When a body falls freely, its potential energy is converted into:

A Chemical energy B Heat energy C Kinetic energy D Sound energy

183

Which law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed?

A Newton’s first law B Law of inertia C Law of conservation of energy D Ohm’s law

184

According to conservation of energy, total energy remains:

A Increasing B Decreasing C Constant D Zero

185

A machine that works without energy loss is called:

A Simple machine B Ideal machine C Complex machine D Heat engine

186

Perpetual motion machines are impossible because they violate:

A Law of motion B Law of inertia C Law of conservation of energy D Law of gravitation

187

Which of the following is a renewable energy source?

A Coal B Petroleum C Solar energy D Natural gas

188

Which energy source is non-renewable?

A Wind B Hydel C Coal D Solar

189

Energy obtained from flowing water is called:

A Thermal energy B Hydel energy C Solar energy D Nuclear energy

190

Which energy source causes air pollution?

A Wind B Solar C Fossil fuels D Hydel

191

Power is defined as:

A Work done per unit time B Energy stored C Force applied D Distance covered

192

The SI unit of power is:

A Joule B Newton C Watt D Ampere

193

If more work is done in less time, power will be:

A Less B Zero C More D Negative

194

Efficiency of a machine is always:

A 100% B Less than 100% C Greater than 100% D Zero

195

Efficiency is the ratio of:

A Output energy to input energy B Input energy to output energy C Force to distance D Mass to velocity

196

Energy losses mainly occur due to:

A Sound and heat B Light only C Mass change D Gravity

197

What is density?

A Mass multiplied by volume B Volume divided by mass C Mass per unit volume D Weight per unit volume

198

Which formula represents density?

A Density = Volume / Mass B Density = Mass × Volume C Density = Mass / Volume D Density = Weight / Volume

199

What is the SI unit of density?

A kg B m³ C kg/m³ D g/cm³

200

Which quantity is needed to calculate density?

A Force B Pressure C Mass and volume D Temperature and mass

201

Which instrument is commonly used to measure mass?

A Thermometer B Measuring cylinder C Balance D Stopwatch

202

How is the volume of an irregular solid measured?

A Using ruler B Using measuring tape C By water displacement method D By thermometer

203

Which apparatus is used to measure volume of liquids?

A Balance B Thermometer C Measuring cylinder D Spring balance

204

Density of a substance depends on:

A Its shape B Its size C Its mass and volume D Its color

205

Which state of matter has a fixed shape?

A Liquid B Gas C Solid D Plasma

206

Which state of matter has no fixed volume?

A Solid B Liquid C Gas D Ice

207

Which state of matter has particles very close together?

A Gas B Liquid C Solid D Plasma

208

Which state of matter has the weakest intermolecular forces?

A Solid B Liquid C Gas D Plasma

209

What is plasma?

A Cold gas B Liquid with ions C Ionized gas D Heated solid

210

Which is an example of plasma?

A Ice B Steam C Sun D Water

211

Particle model of matter explains:

A Only solids B Only liquids C Structure and behavior of matter D Only gases

212

According to particle model, particles of matter are:

A Stationary B Continuously moving C Invisible D Fixed in place

213

What happens to particle motion when temperature increases?

A It stops B It decreases C It increases D It remains same

214

Temperature is a measure of:

A Mass B Density C Average kinetic energy of particles D Volume

215

Which instrument is used to measure temperature?

A Barometer B Thermometer C Hygrometer D Manometer

216

Which scale is commonly used in laboratories?

A Kelvin B Celsius C Fahrenheit D Rankine

217

Lower fixed point of a Celsius thermometer is:

A 0°C B 100°C C 32°C D 273°C

218

Upper fixed point of a Celsius thermometer is:

A 0°C B 50°C C 100°C D 212°C

219

Calibration of thermometer means:

A Cleaning the thermometer B Marking temperature scale C Filling liquid D Measuring pressure

220

Which liquid is commonly used in a liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A Water B Alcohol C Mercury D Oil

221

Why is mercury suitable for thermometers?

A It is colorful B It sticks to glass C It expands uniformly D It freezes easily

222

Sensitivity of thermometer depends on:

A Length of stem B Thickness of bulb C Volume of bulb and capillary D Color of liquid

223

Range of thermometer means:

A Accuracy B Maximum and minimum measurable temperature C Speed of response D Sensitivity

224

Linearity of thermometer means:

A Equal divisions represent equal temperature change B Fast response C Wide range D High sensitivity

225

Which property of a magnet causes it to attract iron?

A Electric charge B Magnetic field C Gravity D Friction

226

Which are the two ends of a magnet called?

A Electric poles B Positive and negative ends C Magnetic poles D Charged ends

227

Like magnetic poles will:

A Attract each other B Repel each other C Disappear D Become neutral

228

Unlike magnetic poles will:

A Repel each other B Have no effect C Attract each other D Destroy each other

229

Which material can be magnetized easily?

A Copper B Plastic C Iron D Wood

230

Which of the following is a non-magnetic material?

A Iron B Steel C Nickel D Plastic

231

Magnetism produced in an unmagnetized material is called:

A Permanent magnetism B Residual magnetism C Induced magnetism D Electric magnetism

232

Which magnet loses its magnetism easily?

A Permanent magnet B Temporary magnet C Bar magnet D Earth magnet

233

Steel is commonly used to make permanent magnets because it:

A Is cheap B Has high retentivity C Is soft D Conducts electricity

234

Which material is suitable for making electromagnets?

A Steel B Aluminum C Soft iron D Copper

235

The region around a magnet where magnetic force is felt is called:

A Electric field B Magnetic zone C Magnetic field D Force area

236

Magnetic field lines always emerge from:

A South pole B Center of magnet C North pole D All sides equally

237

Magnetic field lines enter the magnet at:

A North pole B South pole C Center D Any point

238

Magnetic field lines never:

A Intersect each other B Form closed loops C Exist outside magnet D Exist inside magnet

239

The closeness of magnetic field lines indicates:

A Direction of field B Strength of field C Type of magnet D Mass of magnet

240

Which device is used to detect the direction of magnetic field?

A Ammeter B Voltmeter C Compass D Thermometer

241

Iron filings are used to:

A Measure magnetic field B Plot magnetic field lines C Increase magnetism D Destroy magnet

242

The magnetic field inside a magnet is directed from:

A North to South B South to North C East to West D West to East

243

Which of the following is a use of permanent magnets?

A Electric bell B Transformer C Loudspeaker D Electromagnetic crane

244

An electromagnet works on the principle of:

A Static electricity B Chemical reaction C Magnetic effect of current D Electrolysis

245

The strength of an electromagnet can be increased by:

A Reducing current B Increasing number of turns C Using plastic core D Reducing turns

246

Which magnet can be switched ON and OFF?

A Bar magnet B Permanent magnet C Electromagnet D Natural magnet

247

Domain theory explains magnetism due to:

A Electric charges B Alignment of domains C Gravity D Heat energy

248

In an unmagnetized material, magnetic domains are:

A Randomly oriented B Fully aligned C Absent D Very large

249

Ferromagnetic materials are:

A Strongly attracted by magnets B Weakly attracted C Weakly repelled D Not affected

250

Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material?

A Copper B Iron C Silver D Glass

251

Paramagnetic materials are:

A Strongly repelled B Strongly attracted C Weakly attracted D Not affected

252

Diamagnetic materials are:

A Strongly attracted B Weakly attracted C Weakly repelled D Strongly magnetized

253

Which of the following is diamagnetic?

A Iron B Nickel C Copper D Cobalt

254

The Earth behaves like:

A An electric dipole B A bar magnet C An electromagnet D A solenoid

255

The direction of Earth’s magnetic field is from:

A Geographic North to South B Geographic South to North C East to West D West to East

256

A compass needle aligns itself along:

A Electric field B Earth’s magnetic field C Gravitational field D Solar radiation

257

Which application uses magnetism in data storage?

A LCD screen B Hard disk C Calculator D Solar panel

258

Magnetic shielding is used to:

A Increase magnetic field B Reduce unwanted magnetic fields C Create electricity D Store data

259

Which material is commonly used for magnetic shielding?

A Aluminum B Plastic C Soft iron D Glass

260

What is physics mainly the study of?

A Living organisms B Matter and energy C Languages D History

261

Which of the following is included in physics?

A Poetry B Matter C Grammar D Art

262

Physics studies matter, energy, space, and ____.

A Language B Culture C Time D Religion

263

Which branch deals with motion and forces?

A Optics B Thermodynamics C Mechanics D Nuclear physics

264

Which sub-field of physics studies heat?

A Electronics B Thermodynamics C Astrophysics D Geophysics

265

Which field of physics studies light?

A Mechanics B Optics C Acoustics D Atomic physics

266

The study of sound comes under which branch?

A Optics B Acoustics C Mechanics D Electromagnetism

267

Which sub-field deals with electric charges?

A Mechanics B Electromagnetism C Thermodynamics D Optics

268

Physics is a part of which group of sciences?

A Life sciences B Social sciences C Physical sciences D Computer sciences

269

Which of the following is a physical science?

A Biology B Sociology C Physics D Psychology

270

Who studies physics professionally?

A Chemist B Biologist C Physicist D Engineer

271

What is one major role of physicists?

A Writing novels B Discovering natural laws C Teaching languages D Selling products

272

Physicists mainly try to understand ____.

A Human behavior B Natural phenomena C Economic systems D Political systems

273

Science is best described as a ____ process.

A Individual B Random C Collaborative D Secret

274

In science, researchers usually share their results through ____.

A Stories B Poems C Publications D Songs

275

What is a hypothesis?

A A proven fact B A tentative explanation C A scientific law D A final conclusion

276

A hypothesis is usually based on ____.

A Guesswork only B Observations C Opinions D Beliefs

277

Which comes first in scientific study?

A Law B Theory C Hypothesis D Technology

278

What is a scientific theory?

A A guess B An explanation supported by evidence C A rule without proof D A belief

279

A scientific law describes ____.

A Why something happens B How something happens C Who discovered it D Where it is used

280

Which statement best defines a scientific law?

A It explains observations B It predicts behavior under certain conditions C It is a personal idea D It cannot be tested

281

Which is more general?

A Hypothesis B Theory C Observation D Experiment

282

Falsifiability means a scientific statement must be ____.

A Popular B Testable C Complex D Permanent

283

Which statement is falsifiable?

A All natural events follow laws B This claim can be tested by experiment C Science is interesting D Nature is beautiful

284

Why is falsifiability important in science?

A It makes science complex B It allows testing of ideas C It proves beliefs D It avoids experiments

285

Which of the following is not science?

A Physics B Chemistry C Technology D Biology

286

Technology mainly focuses on ____.

A Discovering laws B Applying scientific knowledge C Forming hypotheses D Testing theories

287

Engineering is mainly concerned with ____.

A Understanding nature B Applying science to solve problems C Making theories D Studying matter only

288

Which one converts scientific ideas into practical devices?

A Science B Technology C Philosophy D Literature

289

Physics contributes most directly to which field?

A Art B Engineering C History D Geography

290

Which of the following best represents collaboration in science?

A Working alone B Sharing data with others C Keeping results secret D Avoiding discussion

291

Scientific knowledge grows mainly through ____.

A Arguments B Experiments and discussion C Opinions D Traditions

292

Which is NOT a sub-field of physics?

A Mechanics B Optics C Botany D Thermodynamics

293

Astrophysics mainly studies ____.

A Plants B Stars and galaxies C Sound waves D Electric circuits

294

Atomic physics deals with ____.

A Atoms B Planets C Cells D Machines

295

Nuclear physics studies ____.

A Electrons B Atomic nucleus C Sound D Light only

296

Which term refers to careful study of nature?

A Art B Science C Myth D Belief

297

Physics laws are usually expressed in the form of ____.

A Stories B Mathematical relations C Poems D Pictures

298

Which quality is essential for a physicist?

A Curiosity B Imagination only C Wealth D Fame

299

Which of the following best defines science?

A Collection of beliefs B Systematic study of nature C Religious practice D Artistic expression

300

Which term describes repeated testing of ideas?

A Observation B Experimentation C Imagination D Opinion

301

Which is NOT a characteristic of scientific method?

A Testability B Repeatability C Blind belief D Observation

302

Scientific laws are valid as long as they are ____.

A Popular B Not challenged C Supported by experiments D Old

303

Which one explains natural events?

A Theory B Law C Technology D Engineering

304

Engineering differs from science because it focuses on ____.

A Discovering facts B Applying knowledge C Forming laws D Making hypotheses

305

Which is an example of technology?

A Newton’s laws B Mobile phone C Theory of motion D Scientific method

306

Which statement is true about science?

A It never changes B It grows with new evidence C It is based on belief D It avoids testing

307

Which of the following is an application of physics?

A Poetry B Medicine C Grammar D Painting

308

Physics helps us understand the universe by using ____.

A Myths B Experiments and mathematics C Opinions D Traditions

309

A body is in equilibrium when its:

A acceleration is zero. B speed is zero. C velocity is non-uniform. D displacement is zero.

310

A couple is formed by:

A two forces perpendicular to each other. B two equal and opposite forces not in the same line. C two equal and opposite forces in the same line. D two unequal forces.

311

The vertical or perpendicular component of a force F making an angle θ with the horizontal x-axis is given by:

A F cos(θ) B F tan(θ) C F sin(θ) D F cot(θ)

312

The turning effect of a force is called:

A Momentum B Pressure C Work D Torque

313

The centre of gravity of an irregularly shaped thin lamina can be found using a:

A Plumb line B Screw gauge C Vernier callipers D Metre rule

Full Book

Which of the following is a physical quantity?

Which of the following is a non-physical quantity?

Physics mainly deals with the study of:

Which of the following is a base quantity?

How many base quantities are there in SI system?

Which is the SI unit of length?

SI unit of mass is:

SI unit of time is:

Which of the following is a derived quantity?

SI unit of speed is:

Which quantity has both magnitude and direction?

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

Distance is a:

Displacement is a:

Which quantity changes when direction changes?

Resultant of two vectors at right angles is found using:

Which instrument is used to measure length accurately?

Screw gauge is mainly used to measure:

Least count means:

Volume of a liquid is measured using:

SI unit of volume is:

Which instrument is used to measure time?

Stopwatch is used to measure:

Scientific notation is used to express:

Which of the following is correct scientific notation?

Prefix kilo (k) represents:

Prefix milli (m) represents:

Prefix micro (µ) means:

Which prefix represents 10⁶?

Accuracy refers to:

Precision refers to:

Which causes error in measurement?

Zero error occurs when:

Random errors can be reduced by:

Which quantity is vector?

Unit of force is:

Force is a:

Which is NOT an SI base unit?

Measurement is comparison with:

Which quantity is measured in m²?

Which of the following best defines motion?

Which type of motion is shown by a spinning top?

Which quantity has both magnitude and direction?

Distance is defined as:

Displacement can be zero even when:

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

Speed is calculated by the formula:

Velocity differs from speed because velocity includes:

Average speed is defined as:

Which instrument is commonly used to measure speed of vehicles?

Instantaneous speed is the speed:

Uniform velocity means:

Non-uniform velocity occurs when:

Acceleration is defined as:

SI unit of acceleration is:

Uniform acceleration means:

Which of the following is an example of uniform acceleration?

In a distance-time graph, the slope represents:

A horizontal line on a distance-time graph shows:

In a speed-time graph, the slope represents:

Area under a speed-time graph represents:

If speed-time graph is a straight line sloping upwards, motion has:

If the slope of speed-time graph is zero, the object has:

Motion under gravity is an example of:

The value of acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately:

Acceleration due to gravity acts:

When an object is thrown upward, its acceleration is:

At the highest point of a vertically thrown object, its velocity is:

Which graph represents uniform velocity?

Negative acceleration is also called:

Which quantity determines the direction of motion?

If an object covers equal distances in unequal intervals of time, its motion is:

Universal speed limit refers to:

The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:

Mass of a body is defined as:

The SI unit of mass is:

Mass of a body remains:

Inertia is the property of a body due to which it:

Greater mass means: